Can anyone rule out Buckingham as devising such a scheme?

The following is an account of Buckingham's role in the events of 1483. He was so mercurial: supporting Richard III and then betraying him, I find it difficult to believe that he seriously supported Henry Tudor: a virtual unknown in 1483 and as Buckingham had agreed to the illegitimacy of Edward V's sisters I doubt if that would've prevented him from bidding for the crown for himself. Richard III in a letter describes Buckingham as `the most untrue creature living' and `never was a falser traitor better purveyed for.' An untrue, false traitor was capable of killing the princes, as constable of such areas as the Tower, blaming Richard and then double dealing with Tudor. If Buckingham had defeated Richard and had the larger army, does anyone seriously think he would've accepted Tudor as King? As the princes were Plantagenet-Woodvilles or illegitimate Woodvilles if we accept the marriage Edward IV /Elizabeth Woodville as invalid, Buckingham with his apparent hatred for his forced relationship with the Woodvilles may well have decided to order their deaths leaving Richard with the blame / ignominy of killing children. Richard would have no choice to bury them as few would believe his account. This may account for Elizabeth Woodville trusting Richard with herself and her daughters. Can anyone rule out Buckingham as devising such a scheme?

`Richard III is alleged to have consolidated his power by eliminating his brother's children, who preceded him in succession to the throne. However, there is some question about Buckingham's relationship to the disappearance of the Princes in the Tower. According to a manuscript discovered in the early 1980s in the College of Arms collection, the Princes were murdered "be [by] the vise" of the Duke of Buckingham. There is some argument over whether "vise" means "advice" or "devise," and, if the former, in what sense. If Richard was responsible for killing the Princes in the Tower, the murders may have caused Buckingham to change sides. However, already having declared his nephews by Edward IV illegitimate, it can be argued that Richard had no cause (and would in fact harm his reputation) to order their murders. On the other hand, Buckingham himself had motivation to kill the Princes, being a Lancastrian contender for the throne with a viable claim potentially equivalent to that of Henry Tudor, depending on one's view of the legitimacy of the Tudor branch of the House of Lancaster. According to this perspective, if Buckingham killed the Princes and blamed Richard, he could foment a Lancastrian rebellion, putting the throne into play with only Henry Tudor as a rival. Indeed, a Lancastrian rebellion followed, but it was Henry Tudor who succeeded in deposing Richard III.'

I believe that Buckingham was Shakespeare's model for his Richard in the play, a man pursuing an ambition for the throne from an early date, mixed in with a desire for revenge against both the Woodvilles and the Yorks. King Edward had after all given him to his queen to dispose of in marriage, AND taken away the, what he considered, Stafford hereditary post of Constable of England, to Gloucester of all people too! Imagine what was going on in that unstable mind of his.
Paul


On 24 Dec 2010, at 12:33, vermeertwo wrote:

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> The following is an account of Buckingham's role in the events of 1483. He was so mercurial: supporting Richard III and then betraying him, I find it difficult to believe that he seriously supported Henry Tudor: a virtual unknown in 1483 and as Buckingham had agreed to the illegitimacy of Edward V's sisters I doubt if that would've prevented him from bidding for the crown for himself. Richard III in a letter describes Buckingham as `the most untrue creature living' and `never was a falser traitor better purveyed for.' An untrue, false traitor was capable of killing the princes, as constable of such areas as the Tower, blaming Richard and then double dealing with Tudor. If Buckingham had defeated Richard and had the larger army, does anyone seriously think he would've accepted Tudor as King? As the princes were Plantagenet-Woodvilles or illegitimate Woodvilles if we accept the marriage Edward IV /Elizabeth Woodville as invalid, Buckingham with his apparent hatred for his forced relationship with the Woodvilles may well have decided to order their deaths leaving Richard with the blame / ignominy of killing children. Richard would have no choice to bury them as few would believe his account. This may account for Elizabeth Woodville trusting Richard with herself and her daughters. Can anyone rule out Buckingham as devising such a scheme?
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> `Richard III is alleged to have consolidated his power by eliminating his brother's children, who preceded him in succession to the throne. However, there is some question about Buckingham's relationship to the disappearance of the Princes in the Tower. According to a manuscript discovered in the early 1980s in the College of Arms collection, the Princes were murdered "be [by] the vise" of the Duke of Buckingham. There is some argument over whether "vise" means "advice" or "devise," and, if the former, in what sense. If Richard was responsible for killing the Princes in the Tower, the murders may have caused Buckingham to change sides. However, already having declared his nephews by Edward IV illegitimate, it can be argued that Richard had no cause (and would in fact harm his reputation) to order their murders. On the other hand, Buckingham himself had motivation to kill the Princes, being a Lancastrian contender for the throne with a viable claim potentially equivalent to that of Henry Tudor, depending on one's view of the legitimacy of the Tudor branch of the House of Lancaster. According to this perspective, if Buckingham killed the Princes and blamed Richard, he could foment a Lancastrian rebellion, putting the throne into play with only Henry Tudor as a rival. Indeed, a Lancastrian rebellion followed, but it was Henry Tudor who succeeded in deposing Richard III.'
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